Alex Beaudin
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Apr 30, 2026

The Real numbers are worse than I thought

The Real number system constantly surprises me. Adding measure theory, a convenient tool that simply abstracts away book-keeping and the nastiness of the real numbers only makes the pain all the more apparent. This hit me hard as I worked through the exercises of Axler’s MIRA.

Suppose b1,b2,…b_1, b_2, \dotsc is a sequence of real numbers. Define f:R→[0,∞]f: \mathbb{R} \to [0, \infty] by

f(x)={∑k=1∞14k∣x−bk∣ if x∉{b1,b2,… },∞ if x∈{b1,b2,… }.(1)\htmlId{eq-1}{f(x) = \begin{cases} \displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{4^k |x - b_k| } & \text{ if } x \notin \{b_1, b_2, \dotsc \}, \\ \infty & \text{ if } x \in \{b_1, b_2, \dotsc \}. \end{cases}} \tag{1}

Prove that ∣{x∈R : f(x)<1}∣=∞|\left\{ x \in \mathbb{R} \,:\, f(x) < 1 \right\}| = \infty.

At first glance, it’s not even clear that there’s any point where f(x)<1f(x) <1. What if I picked (bk)(b_k) to contain all rational numbers? Then for any xx, there are infinitely many bkb_k which are arbitrarily close to xx! How could f(x)f(x) possibly be less than one anywhere?

As is to be expected, the proof of the solution to this problem is very elegant. Create an open interval of width 2−k2^{-k} around bkb_k for every bkb_k, call each interval IkI_k. It turns out that points in those intervals are the only points where f(x)>1f(x) > 1. Moreover,

μ(⋃kIk)=∑kμ(Ik)=∑k2−k=1,(2)\htmlId{eq-2}{\mu \left( \bigcup_k I_k \right) = \sum_k \mu(I_k) = \sum_k 2^{-k} = 1,} \tag{2}

which essentially completes the proof. Despite the simple proof, the mental picture of what happens when the sequence of bkb_k consists of all rational numbers still lies beyond my intuition. Clearly, this problem isn’t done for me yet.